Commit 8e038356 authored by Gary Steele's avatar Gary Steele
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fixed minus sign

parent dd4cdd49
Pipeline #46918 passed with stages
in 6 minutes and 27 seconds
......@@ -4,8 +4,8 @@ jupyter:
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format_version: '1.0'
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format_version: '1.2'
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......@@ -55,7 +55,7 @@ $$
where $p$ is just the 1D scalar momentum, not the momentum operator. We can also form $W(x,p)$ with $\phi(p)$, the Fourier transform of $\psi(x)$:
$$
W(x,p) = \frac{1}{\pi \hbar} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \phi^*(p+q) \phi(p-q) e^{2iqx/\hbar} dq
W(x,p) = \frac{1}{\pi \hbar} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \phi^*(p+q) \phi(p-q) e^{-2iqx/\hbar} dq
$$
How should we interpret the Wigner function? It must be something like a probability distribution, as the name suggests. If we integrate $W(x,p)$ over all $p$, we get $|\psi(x)|^2$:
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