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DifferentialEquationsLecture2

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@@ -399,13 +399,98 @@ PDE was supplied with an initial condition.
Putting the solutions to the two ODEs together and redefining
$\Tilde{A}=A \cdot c_1$, we arrive at the solutions for theb PDE,
$\psi_n(x,t) = \Tilde{A} e^{-i \frac{\lambda_n t}{\hbar}} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L}).$
$\psi_n(x,t) = \Tilde{A}_n e^{-i \frac{\lambda_n t}{\hbar}} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L}).$
Notice that there is one solution $\psi_{n}(x,t)$ for each natural number $n$.
These are still very special solutions. We will begin discussing next how to
obtain the general solution in our example.
## Self-adjoint differential equations: Connection to Hilbert spaces! ##
As we hinted was possible earlier, let us re-write the previous equation by
defining a linear operator, $L$, acting on the space of functions which satisfy
$\phi(0)=\phi(L)=0$:
$$L[\cdot]:= \frac{- \hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2}[\cdot]. $$
Then, the ODE can be writted as
$$L[\phi]=\lambda \phi.$$
This equation looks exactly like, and turns out to be, an eigenvalue equation!
!!! info "Connecting function spaces to Hilbert spaces"
Recall that a space of functions can be transformed into a Hilbert space by
equipping it with a inner product,
$$\langle f, g \rangle = \int^{L}_{0} dx f*(x) g(x) $$
Use of this inner product also has utility in demonstrating that particular
operators are *Hermitian*. The term hermitian is precisely defined below.
Of considerable interest is that hermition operators have a set of nice
properties including all real eigenvalues and orthonormal eigenfunctions.
The nicest type of operators for many practical purposes are hermitian
operators. In quantum physics for example, any physical operator must be
hermitian. Denote a hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. An opertor
$H: \mathcal{H} \mapsto \mathcal{H}$ is said to be hermitian if it satisfies
$$\langle f, H g \rangle = \langle H f, g \rangle \ \forall \ f, \ g \ \epsilon \ \mathcal{H}.$$
Now, we would like to investigate whether the operator we have been working with,
$L$ satisfies the criterion of being hermitian over the function space
$\phi(0)=\phi(L)=0$ equipped with the above defined inner product (i.e. it is a
Hilbert space). Denote this Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}_{0}$ and consider let
$f, \ g \ \epsilon \ \mathcal{H}_0$ denote two functions from the Hilbert space.
Then, we can investigate
$$\langle f, L g \rangle = \frac{- \hbar^2}{2m} \int^{L}_{0} dx f*(x) \frac{d^2}{dx^2}g(x).$$
As a first step, it is possible to do integration by parts in the integral,
$$\langle f, L g \rangle = \frac{+ \hbar^2}{2m} ( \int^{L}_{0} dx \frac{d f*}{dx} \frac{d g}{dx} - [f*(x)\frac{d g}{dx}] \big{|}^{L}_{0} )$$
The boundary term vansishes, due to the boundary conditions $f(0)=f(L)=0$,
which directly imply $f*(0)=f*(L)=0$. Now, intergrate by parts a second time
$$\langle f, L g \rangle = \frac{- \hbar^2}{2m} (\int^{L}_{0} dx \frac{d^2 f*}{dx^2} g(x) - [\frac{d f*}{dx} g(x)] \big{|}^{L}_{0} ).$$
As before, the boundary term vanishes, due to the boundary conditions
$g(0)=g(L)=0$. Upon cancelling the boundary term however, the expression on
the right hand side, contained in the integral is simply
$\langle L f, g \rangle$. Therefore,
$$\langle f, L g \rangle=\langle L f, g \rangle. $$
We have demonstrated that $L$ is a hermitian operator on the space
$\mathcal{H}_0$. As a hermitian operator, $L$ has the property that it's
eigenfunctions form an orthonormal basis for the space $\mathcal{H}_0$. Hence it
is possible to expand any function $f \ \epsilon \ \mathcal{H}_0$ in terms of
the eigenfunctions of $L$.
!!! info "Connection to quantum states"
Recall that q quantum state $\ket{\phi}$ can be written in an orthonormal
basis $\{ \ket{u_n} \}$ as
$$\ket{\phi} = \underset{n}{\Sigma} \bra{u_n} \ket{\phi} \ket{u_n}.$$
In terms of hermitian operators and their eigenfunctions, the eigenfunctions
play the role of the orthonormal basis. In reference to our running example,
the 1D Schr\"{o}dinger equation of a free particle, the eigenfunctions
$sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L})$ play the role of the basis functions $\ket{u_n}$.
To close our running example, consider the initial condition
$\psi(x,o) = \psi_{0}(x)$. Since the eigenfunctions $sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L})$
form a basis, we can now write the general solution to the problem as
$$\psi(x,t) = \overset{\infinity}{\underset{n}{\Sigma}} c_n e^{-i \frac{\lambda_n t}{\hbar}} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L}),$$
where in the above we have defined the coefficients using the Fourier
coefficient,
$$c_n:= \int^{L}_{0} dx sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L}) \psi_{0}(x). $$
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